Being dead 10: Jesus 1

 

[In reading this and the next few posts if you want simply to capture the main argument feel free to skip reading the paragraphs printed in maroon. These paragraphs will present the supporting arguments for the points that are being made in the paragraphs in blue, the usual color in these posts.]

In days gone by Christians often branded Islam as “Mohammedenism” and a muslim as a “Mohammedan.” Apart from other deep theological misunderstandings revealed in this naming it does expose the misguided assumption that the prophet Muhammad in Islam occupies a similar position as Jesus Christ in Christianity. This, of course, is not at all the case.

But there is another question, or set of questions, that arises.

  • What exactly is the position of Jesus Christ in Christianity?
  • What is it about him that makes naming a follower of his “Christian” appropriate?
  • What did he do to justify his being placed as the defining heart of the faith?
  • What accounts for titles of highest reverence and significance being applied to him in the New Testament, such as Savior, Lord, Son of God, Son of Man, Son of David, Lamb of God, Light of the World, Logos [Word of God,] New/Second/Last Adam, King of the Jews, Emmanuel?
  • How do those titles and what they signify blend with others such as master, teacher, messiah, alpha and omega, morning star?
  • In turn, how does all this match up with the language of the creeds? The ground on which the details stand is captured in this statement of principle from the Athanasian Creed, “What quality the Father has, the Son has, and the Holy Spirit has.”

I repeat: what is there about Jesus, or what is it that he did, to justify this order of exalted language?

Back to Schweitzer from last post. Let me simply list summarize some of the highlighted points from that post. The purpose? To illustrate the complexity of knowing where to go to find an answer to my question.

  • The absolute indifference of early Christianity towards the life of the historical Jesus
  • Paul did not desire to know Christ after the flesh [and] felt that with the introduction of the historic Jesus into its faith, there would arise something new.
  • Primitive Christianity [abolished] both the world and the historical Jesus
  • Gnosticism and the Logos Christology agreed in sublimating the historical Jesus into the supra-mundane Idea.
  • Greek theology was indifferent in regard to the historical
  • We may consider it fortunate that the Synoptics were already so firmly established that the Fourth Gospel could not oust them;
  • When at Chalcedon the West overcame the East, its doctrine of the two natures dissolved the unity of the Person, and thereby cut off the last possibility of a return to the historical Jesus.

What does this say about the question I want to answer? [It is, I repeat again: What is there about Jesus, or what did he do, to justify the language/ideas/concepts that later accrued to him?]

Note and keep in mind two things:

One, the time assumption.

Schweitzer articulates a time scale development [which has in turn been made almost axiomatic in modern New Testament research up to the present.] Thus:

                        30                   50-55                         55-90             50-Creeds                            

Jesus life and work—Paul’s life and work—Gospels written—Greek Christianity

                                                The Synoptics                                   John

Two observations about the distinction between the Synoptics and John.

A) They differ in significant ways: for example, chronology of Jesus ministry [one year versus three;] geography [one journey to Jerusalem verses repeated journeys;] style [short, sharp, everyday word pictures versus lengthy theological monologues;] content [John’s seven signs replace the exorcisms and healing miracles;] timing in relation to Passover and content of the holy week events including the crucifixion [most famously a last supper of bread and wine versus the foot-washing.]

  • Frankly, these differences are irreconcilable if the documents are to be equally regarded as evidence for the life and work of the historical Jesus.

B) The Synoptics are in turn a complex blend of interdependent but different sources and/or traditions. The standard understanding of this relationship amongst them can be summarized:

The Synoptics equal

  • (1) the bulk of Mark’s Gospel plus
  • (2) material particular to Matthew [e.g. the visit of the magi cycle of stories, the bursting open of graves with the dead walking around Jerusalem, on Easter morning] plus
  • (3) material particular to Luke [e.g. the birth of Jesus cycle of stories (with the census, the shepherds, the manger,) and many parables (the Good Samaritan, the Prodigal Son) and an emphasis on women] plus
  • (4) material found only in Matthew and Luke [e.g. the Lord’s Prayer and the Beatitudes.]

Their similarities and interdependence are striking, but their differences are also. These differences themselves suggest caution in regarding them as simple records of a pure historical Jesus at work. Of these differences most stunning, perhaps, are their differing accounts of what transpired after the discovery of the empty tomb on the first Easter morning, where these things happened, and to whom.

  • Frankly, these differences are irreconcilable if these documents also are to be equally regarded as evidence for the life and work of the historical Jesus.

Two, there are three options.

A literalistic fundamentalism that simply sets the internal differences aside and quotes away in certainty; “Jesus-said-and-that’s-that-ism.”

A radical skepticism that sets the reality of an historical Jesus aside and either drifts loyally into a total acceptance of the Christ of the creeds or imposes recreated [i.e.fictional] parameters on the Jesus figure [e.g. a liberating revolutionary, an end-of-the-world mystic, a sad and somewhat misguided teacher, a wise genius or …..]

A Biblicality-centered realism. This is the way I have been preparing in these posts and which will be the substance of all that follows.

The invisible partner

“The Bible says …. !”

This phrase normally introduces an alleged Ace card argument. You have been arguing for a position and your “Bible-believing” opponent comes away with it. The Bible says blah blah blah. There; end of discussion.

Take government spending on defense, for example. You have been making the case that we will need to increase spending, strengthen the military, etc., and the Bible believer comes away with, “But, the Bible says, beat your swords into plowshares and your spears into pruning hooks. See? We need to increase spending on agriculture and decrease the devil’s money, the money we spend on militarization.”

The best reposte, in this case, is to say, “Well, the Bible also says, Beat your plowshares into swords and your pruning hooks into spears. You were quoting Isaiah, but I am quoting Joel. Both are in the Bible. So, what is the Bible saying? Nothing about the proportioning of the US federal budget in the twenty first century. Isaiah and Joel had something else in mind.”

 Now, the table has been set for a real discussion about biblical relevancy for contemporary life.

A text without a context is a pretext. [I have many times reminded readers of these posts of this fundamental rule for sound biblical reading. Disregard it and you can make the Bible say whatever you want it to.]

But, there is a more radical [I mean “at root”] issue than the twisted self-interest that motivates much Bible invoking in the discussion of social or political issues.

The Bible was not written in English [or any other contemporary language.]  Biblical Hebrew and a little Aramaic constitute the Old Testament while koine or common Greek is what we read in the New. If you cannot read these languages then what you assert “the Bible says” is a translation.

Translations, not just of the Bible, are problematic.

Various translation methodologies have evolved as to how best to express a source language in a target language. Should the translator seek to express a source word with the same word in the target language whenever it occurs? If X means Y once should it not always mean Y? Some translators think so. Others argue, that the translating task is not to translate words or even sentences, but to express the source meaning of a passage in the appropriate words and sentences of the target language.

When you read a Bible in English do you know what philosophy of translation lies behind it? Is it literalistic or more paraphrastic?

How confident can we be when using a translation we claim to know what “the Bible says?”

Consider:

There are no capital letters in Biblical Hebrew. God is the same as god, lord as Lord, spirit as Spirit, just to give three examples.

In Greek manuscripts of the New Testament there are either only capital letters [like old-fashioned elementary school printing] or there are only lower case letters in cursive.

Furthermore, both Biblical Hebrew and Koine Greek are vocabulary impoverished, in comparison to English certainly and many other contemporary languages. In Hebrew, for example, comparative and superlative forms of, the relatively few, adjectives are not found and these modes must be expressed otherwise.

I could go on, but based on these consideration alone, examine two familiar passages.

Genesis 1:1 & 2 “In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth …. and the Spirit of God hovered over the waters.”

  • Note: the word “God” translates the Hebrew elohim. There is no capital at the beginning and the form of the Hebrew is plural.
  • Note: the word “Spirit” translates the Hebrew ruach. There is no capital at the beginning and the word in its frequent occurrences in the Old Testament can be found translated as here, Spirit, but also as “spirit, wind, and breath.”

Which leads to ….

John 3: 4- 8:

4 Nicodemus said to him, “How can a man be born when he is old? Can he enter a second time into his mother’s womb and be born?” 5 Jesus answered, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God. 6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. 7 Do not marvel that I said to you, ‘You must be born again.’ 8 The wind blows where it wishes, and you hear its sound, but you do not know where it comes from or where it goes. So it is with everyone who is born of the Spirit.”

  • Note: the Greek word for “spirit” is pneuma [which I have highlighted in red above] and in this passage it is translated as spirit, Spirit, wind. Look especially at the end of verse 6!
  • Note: the Greek form, humas, of “you” in the famous phrase at the end of verse 7 is plural! How can this verse be used to justify the necessity of you singular taking Jesus as your singular personal Savior and Lord [note the traditional capitals!]
  • Note: as for being born “again,” it is now a common observation that the Greek word, anōthen, need not have a time-related meaning and often has a space-related one, i.e. “from above.”

All these examples are given, and many, many others could be listed, to lead you:

to respect the difficult task of translating and also to be aware of the agendas, hidden and not so hidden, that color decisions they are called upon to make with every sentence, and

to hesitate to be blindly dogmatic tinged with judgmentalism in declaring that you know with certainty what “the Bible says.”

to remember that between you and the page there is always an Invisible Partner …. the mind, preferences, and prejudices of the translator/s.